Question Detail

MTH 102 Limits Objective Question

Question

Why can the limit of \( \frac{x(x+1)}{x} \) as \( x \) tends to 0 not be evaluated directly by substitution?
Options
A The numerator becomes 1.
B The denominator becomes 1.
C It results in the indeterminate form \(\frac{0}{0}\).
Correct Answer
D The function is a polynomial.
Correct Answer

Option C is the correct answer.

Detailed Explanation

Directly substituting ( x = 0 ) into ( \frac{x(x+1)}{x} ) results in ( \frac{0}{0} ), which must be avoided.

Hint

Example 2 logic.

Question Info