Question Detail
Question
Why can the limit of \( \frac{x(x+1)}{x} \) as \( x \) tends to 0 not be evaluated directly by substitution?
Correct Answer
Option C is the correct answer.
Detailed Explanation
Directly substituting ( x = 0 ) into ( \frac{x(x+1)}{x} ) results in ( \frac{0}{0} ), which must be avoided.
Hint
Example 2 logic.